tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-6719252574677567989.post7373681836926218490..comments2024-03-26T05:22:08.256-04:00Comments on Frontloading HQ: Ted Cruz, Texas Primary Polls and Delegate Allocation in the Lone Star StateJosh Putnamhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/06301836432446874997noreply@blogger.comBlogger3125tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-6719252574677567989.post-30567745666367100102015-06-22T17:47:29.392-04:002015-06-22T17:47:29.392-04:00Thanks for the prompt reply. Much appreciated.Thanks for the prompt reply. Much appreciated.Anonymoushttps://www.blogger.com/profile/03342713341187359961noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-6719252574677567989.post-90876286656074826882015-06-22T17:13:39.713-04:002015-06-22T17:13:39.713-04:00No. If no candidate receives 20% of the vote -- ei...No. If no candidate receives 20% of the vote -- either statewide or on the congressional district level -- the top two vote getters would be allocated the delegates. On the congressional district level that would mean the district winner receives two delegates while the runner-up receives one. Statewide, the allocation would likely maintain the same 4-2 split between the winner and runner-up described in the post. Since there is an even number of remainder at-large delegates, the only way there could be a 3-3 split is if there is an exact tie. There can be no fractional delegates.<br /><br />Good question. Thanks.Josh Putnamhttp://frontloading.blogspot.comnoreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-6719252574677567989.post-33605855793522723862015-06-22T15:35:37.941-04:002015-06-22T15:35:37.941-04:00What if NO Republican candidate receives at least ...What if NO Republican candidate receives at least 20% in any congressional district in Texas. Would that mean that no delegates are awarded in that congressional district, that all are "uncommitted"?Anonymoushttps://www.blogger.com/profile/03342713341187359961noreply@blogger.com